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Certain New Testament passages contain wordings which might cause a casual reader to think that the rulers of this world – kings, presidents and so on – are “appointed by God” and “in his service”. But, as anyone should be able to see, that is not how things are, and also, the Scriptures make it clear that when Jesus returns the rulers of this world will fight against him, and that he will conquer and destroy them. And still, some writers have talked about “divine right of kings”. Is that concept biblical? The question at hand is really this: Do the present-day governments form a “rule of God” here on Earth? Is this God’s world, or is this planet at this time controlled by forces of a different kind? This article takes a closer look at that matter. A number of passages in the Old and New Testaments will be studied here. Romans 13 will be given special consideration.
A note: This is not about the kings of ancient Israel. In that case, it is clear that some of them were chosen by God, even though he did not force those kings on the nation Israel but let them be appointed by the people.
Isaiah 24:21 It shall come to pass in that day That the Lord will punish on high the host of exalted ones, And on the earth the kings of the earth. (NKJV)
Acts 4:26 The kings of the earth took their stand, And the rulers were gathered together Against the Lord and against His Christ.’ (NKJV)
Revelation 17:1 Then one of the seven angels who had the seven bowls came and talked with me, saying to me, “Come, I will show you the judgment of the great harlot who sits on many waters, 2 “with whom the kings of the earth committed fornication, and the inhabitants of the earth were made drunk with the wine of her fornication.” (NKJV)
Revelation 19:19 And I saw the beast, the kings of the earth, and their armies, gathered together to make war against Him who sat on the horse and against His army. (NKJV)
Consider this: If the in those passages mentioned kings (rulers) were appointed by God and are his servants, as certain New Testament passages make it seem, then why would Jesus destroy them when he comes? For, the Bible tells us that he will destroy them.
Today, this planet is in evil hands. We all know this. That is why Jesus will return: To put an end to the wicked ones who today still control this world (the Earth). In that connection, let us consider this scripture:
Matthew 6:10 Your kingdom come. Your will be done On earth as it is in heaven. (NKJV)
Praying in that manner, actually means that one asks God to stop the rule of rebels here on Earth and put the Reign of God into effect even on this planet.
A note: There are those who claim that this world is already a part of God’s Reign (Kingdom). But, as anyone should be able to see, that is not so. The article roa012.htm has some notes on what, where and when the Kingdom or Reign of God really is.
This has to do with Revelation 1:5. For instance the Catholic Douay version has in that verse the wording “the prince of the kings of the earth”. But, really what does that passage mean and refer to? For, anyone who looks around and faces the facts, can see that those who today run this world, are not God’s servants.
Many early English bibles had a different wording. Here is a version with modernised language:
Revelation 1:5 and from Jesus Christ which is a faithful witness, and first begotten of the dead: and Lord over the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us and washed us from our sins in his own blood (TRC)
Perhaps you can see the difference between the wordings “the prince of the kings of the earth” and “the Lord over the kings of the earth”. The latter makes more sense. It appears that Revelation 1:5 is simply a statement that Jesus has been given (legal) power over those rulers. And, other passages show that in the future he will return, as the Lord of lords. At that time, he will use his power, and destroy the wicked rulers of this world.
The article rwa011.htm considers why God has allowed evil, pain and suffering.
Please note that this verse is a part of a context which talks about the heavenly Jerusalem.
Revelation 21:24 And the people which are saved shall walk in the light of it: and the kings of the earth shall bring their glory (and honour) unto it. (TRC)
Who does the last part of that verse refer to? One thing is clear: That passage cannot refer to mortals, because it talks about the heavenly Jerusalem. Mortals cannot enter that city.
The Bible indicates that in the future, when Jesus has returned and destroyed this world’s present rulers, the saints (or some of them) [a] will function as rulers or judges [b] in regard to earthly matters, acting on behalf of the Reign of God. They will honour and praise God, in that heavenly city. [c]
a In this article, the word “saints” refers to those people who received the Holy Spirit in biblical times, first century or earlier.
b Regarding the saints acting as “rulers”, or judges – in the Greek text of the two relevant passages in the book of Revelation, the word is basileus which had many different meanings, such as “king”, “chief”, “captain”, “judge”. Other New Testament passages show that (at least some of) the saints, after they had become immortals, were to assist Jesus in the administration of God’s Kingdom, acting as judges on its behalf. The kingdom is God’s, of course, and he has appointed his son Jesus as its ruler.
c In the above-quoted Revelation 21:24, many translations have “glory”, but it appears that in this case the word doxa in the Greek text refers to “praise”. Perhaps the meaning is that the saints who have become immortals and act as judges over earthly matters, honour and praise God, in that heavenly city.
Bible-translations have since the fourth century been produced under the control of rulers and pontiffs and the like. King James’ bible of 1611 – which many later translators have then in various ways copied – is an example of this. It was produced “by his majesty’s special command”, which is to say, at the order and under the control of king James who spoke about “divine right of kings”.
A Wikipedia article (January 6, 2019) stated that James developed the theory of divine right when he was the king of Scotland (1567–), and that that concept came to the fore under his reign as James I of England (1603–1625), and that it was he who wrote the Scots textbooks of the divine right of kings, in 1597–1598. (Later, other writers have copied the by James created concept, in other books.)
James had a parliament of a kind, and sometimes it had even meetings, but in reality he acted more or less like a dictator. He claimed that he had a “divine right” for that, a heavenly right to rule. In a speech to his “parliament”, he claimed that
“kings are justly called Gods”
“they have power of raising, and casting down: of life, and of death: Judges over all their subjects, and in all causes, and yet accountable to none but God only”.
Some writers have claimed that the idea of a divine right to rule has appeared in many cultures, all the way back to the myth-king Gilgamesh. There is some truth to that claim – that is: Many rulers, from Babylon and onward, have acted as if they somehow had a “heavenly right to rule”. Many of them, including James I of England, have even claimed that kings are “gods”. But, that does not make those in Babylon originating claims correct or true.
Regarding bible-translations: At the beginning of the 1600s, the Geneva bible was the perhaps most commonly used bible-version in England. It had been produced and published in Switzerland, outside the control of British rulers. The Geneva bible contained marginal notes and comments that were not favourable to dictators. This disturbed king James. So, in 1604 he put a group of men into work, in order to have the Geneva bible replaced with a “better” text, without annoying notes. As a basis for their work, those men were given forty wide-margin prints of the 1602 edition of Bishops’ bible (a Church of England translation), and they were told to produce a text that was as close as possible to that 1602 edition, with as few changes as possible. In other words: A “new” bible-edition was ordered in 1604, and still, it was to be a close copy of the 1602 one. So, what was the point with that project? The answer is that it was for political reasons that James ordered a new edition where certain things were to be “adjusted”. The “translators” were given written orders in regard to certain things, and several members of the “translation” committee must have known well what kind of changes James wanted, even without written instructions. They were his allies, and they gave their support to his “divine right” concept. For more on this, including what James’ political motives were, see the article rsa032.htm.
At first glance, it could seem that Romans 13 contains support for the “divine right” concept. However, when one takes a closer look at that passage and its context including the preceding chapter, and the Greek text and the whole matter, things begin to look a bit different.
So, let us consider Romans 13. Here are verses 1–7, as the 1883 Webster version has them.
Romans 13:1 Let every soul be subject to the higher powers. For there is no power but from God: the powers that are, are ordained by God. 2 Whoever therefore resisteth the power, resisteth the ordinance of God: and they that resist shall receive to themselves damnation. 3 For rulers are not a terror to good works, but to the evil. Wilt thou then not be afraid of the power; do that which is good, and thou shalt have praise from the same: 4 For he is the minister of God to thee for good. But if thou doest that which is evil, be afraid; for he beareth not the sword in vain: for he is the minister of God, an avenger to execute wrath upon him that doeth evil. 5 Wherefore ye must needs be subject, not only for wrath, but also for conscience sake. 6 For, for this cause ye pay tribute also: for they are God’s ministers, attending continually upon this very thing. 7 Render therefore to all their dues: tribute to whom tribute is due; custom to whom custom; fear to whom fear; honor to whom honor. (WBS)
That wording might cause a casual reader to think that God is behind the rulers of this world. But, Romans 13 demands deeper study. One must also look at the wider context and the Greek text, and there are even other things to consider.
In order to see what the apostle Paul was talking about, Romans 13, one must go to Romans 12, ignoring the added, misleading chapter break.
Romans 12:17 Repay no one evil for evil, but give thought to do what is honorable in the sight of all. 18 If possible, so far as it depends on you, live peaceably with all. 19 Beloved, never avenge yourselves, but leave it to the wrath of God, for it is written, “Vengeance is mine, I will repay, says the Lord.” 20 To the contrary, “if your enemy is hungry, feed him; if he is thirsty, give him something to drink; for by so doing you will heap burning coals on his head.” 21 Do not be overcome by evil, but overcome evil with good. (ESV01)
Some writers have tried to cause people to think that those words had nothing to do with the saints’ situation in Rome. But, that is nonsense. It is obvious that the above-quoted passage in the apostle Paul’s letter to the saints in Rome, was closely connected to their situation in that town.
Verse 17 records how Paul told those saints, “repay no one evil for evil”. Now, who did evil to the saints in that town? And, regarding verse 18, “if possible, so far as it depends on you, live peaceably with all” – who was prone to disturb those saints’ peace? Also, regarding verse 19, “beloved, never avenge yourselves, but leave it to the wrath of God, for it is written, ‘Vengeance is mine, I will repay, says the Lord’” – what things had been done against those saints, and by whom, so that the Lord would have to avenge? Or, verse 20, “if your enemy […] by so doing you will heap burning coals on his head” – who was those saints’ enemy, and on whose head were those coals to be heaped? Or, verse 21, “do not be overcome by evil, but overcome evil with good” – again: Who did evil to those saints? In short: Who persecuted and hurt the saints in Rome, so that the Lord was to avenge that evil? Why, the Roman rulers and their officials and soldiers. It is obvious that what Paul wrote, Romans 12:17–21, was regarding the saints’ very troublesome situation in that town.
Apparently, the apostle wrote that letter during the reign of Nero, the Roman emperor who, it is said, even had believers put on poles and tarred and then lit afire as “decorations” in his garden parties, and who did much more of the same kind of extreme evil, such as having lions devour believers, as “public entertainment” on the circus-arenas of Rome.
In those days, even the land of Israel was under occupation by the Roman empire. The Jewish nation was under tribute and military rule, virtually enslaved. The Jews tried to free themselves, but the Roman troops slaughtered them in great numbers. Some have estimated that around year 70, the Roman soldiers killed approximately three million Jews.
So, regarding Romans 13, consider this: Had God appointed the rulers of that ruthless and wicked Roman empire which persecuted the saints and even tortured and murdered them? Were those rulers God’s servants? No, of course not. All know that the Roman emperors and their troops served totally different “gods” – idols, ultimately Satan.
Again, the article rwa011.htm considers why God has allowed evil, wars, pain and suffering – why he has allowed this world to be run and controlled by rebels.
Matthew 2 records how Herod the king tried to have the young Jesus murdered. Later, Herod the tetrarch had the head of John the Baptist placed on a platter and presented as a “gift” to his daughter. Were those butchers “appointed by God”? Obviously not. Was the Roman ruler Pontius Pilate who ordered his soldiers to crucify Jesus, “appointed by God” and “in his service”? No. Or the Roman troops who defiled and then destroyed the temple in Jerusalem, and at the same time slaughtered countless Israelites? No. Or, the caesars who burned believers as garden lights and let lions tear and eat them, in order to provide “entertainment” for the citizens of Rome? No, those rulers were not God’s servants.
So, and this is regarding Romans 13, was the horrible Roman government “ordained by God”? No. Or other governments and rulers, such as the Pharaohs of Egypt, the Aztec and Inka rulers, and Genghis Khan, Attila and Hannibal? No. Or the pontiffs of Rome who for a long time acted as emperors as well? No. Or Mussolini, Hitler, Stalin and Mao Tse Tung? No. Or Pol Pot or Idi Amin or other wicked rulers and warlords, of either past or present? No. It is clear that they all were and are enemies of God.
So, it is obvious that we must take a closer look at Romans 13, including the Greek text, in an effort to find out what the apostle Paul really was talking about.
What about the Greek text of Romans 13? There are such questions as, in what language did the apostle Paul write that letter to the saints in Rome? In Greek, or in Latin? (People in Rome spoke Latin.) If he wrote it in Latin, then who did the translation into Greek, and was it in such a case a fully correct translation?
Also: We must keep in mind that the saints’ situation in Rome was very precarious (dangerous), and that they had to be careful with every word and gesture, in order to avoid trouble. This included words in letters. So, it might be that the apostle Paul, who was wise with words, on purpose wrote that letter to Rome with such wordings – and perhaps even with double meanings – that if the Romans officials got hold of that letter, they would not have anything to complain about. But, the saints in Rome could understand what Paul really was saying, and also, it could be that he had instructed the person who carried that letter, to explain what certain things in it actually meant. (It appears that that letter was written in Corinth in Greece. We can assume that the person who carried that letter, had to pass through Roman control points, before reaching the city of Rome.)
Having noted these things, and keeping in mind that the earlier quoted verses 17–21 in Romans 12 make it clear that chapter 13 indeed is connected with the saints’ troublesome situation in Rome, let us now consider that chapter. Here is verse 1:
Romans 13:1 Let every soul be subject to the higher powers. For there is no power but from God: the powers that are, are ordained by God. (WBS)
“Traditionally”, the Greek text of that verse has been interpreted to mean that the present-day rulers of this world are “ordained by God”. But, as was noted earlier in this article, it is clear that they are not. More: When Jesus returns, those rulers will fight against him (but will be conquered and destroyed). So, really how should we understand Romans 13:1? Here is a suggested translation of the Greek text.
Romans 13:1 Let everyone be subject to powers above. For there is no authority except God’s, and those Authorities who [really] have been appointed by God.
It is obvious that the apostle did not mean that the terror-rule by the caesars of Rome was “of God”. So, the meaning may be that there is no true authority, except that which [really] is of God, and those rulers whom God actually has appointed. That is: It is Jesus who has true “royal authority”, and then also those whom Jesus in his turn has appointed. (Please not that God and his son Jesus do not have any mortal “deputies” or “vice-rulers” here on Earth today.)
As we all know, the Roman rulers of New Testament times served idols, ultimately Satan. They were opposed to God. They persecuted His people, and tortured and murdered some of them, in Rome and elsewhere. But, the apostle Paul told God’s people in Rome that they were not to try to retaliate or avenge themselves. The earlier quoted Romans 12:17–21 records how he told them to leave that avenging to God.
Let us now proceed to verse 2 in chapter 13. “Traditionally”, even that verse has been interpreted to mean that the present-day rulers of this world are “ordained by God” and “in his service”, but again, it is clear that they are not. Here is a different translation of verses 1–2:
Romans 13:1 Let everyone be subject to powers above. For there is no authority except God’s, and those Authorities who [really] have been appointed by God. 2 So, those who oppose that Authority, have opposed the ordinance of God. And, those who oppose, will receive judgment upon themselves.
Regarding verse 2: It appears that Paul meant that the wicked rulers who opposed God and hurt his people, would “receive judgment upon themselves”. They were to be judged and punished by God, for their evildoing. God would avenge his own. (Keep in mind the earlier quoted Romans 12:17–21.) Now, onward to verse 3.
Romans 13:1 Let everyone be subject to powers above. For there is no authority except God’s, and those Authorities who [really] have been appointed by God. 2 So, those who oppose that Authority, have opposed the ordinance of God. And, those who oppose, will receive judgment upon themselves. 3 For those rulers are not a terror to doers of good, but to doers of evil. Would you not want to fear that Authority? Do good, and you will receive praise from Him.
Verse 3, “those rulers” – those that really have an appointment from God. That is, the righteous rulers in Heaven, and not the wicked Roman rulers who were enemies of God and subjected His people to persecution and torture.
Still regarding verse 3, “for those rulers are not a terror to doers of good”: In contrast to the Roman rulers, the heavenly rulers were not a terror to those with good works (the saints).
Let us now proceed to verse 4, including the words “the Servant of God with the sword”. Keep in mind that these things were written to the saints in Rome.
Romans 13:1 Let everyone be subject to powers above. For there is no authority except God’s, and those Authorities who [really] have been appointed by God. 2 So, those who oppose that Authority, have opposed the ordinance of God. And, those who oppose, will receive judgment upon themselves. 3 For those rulers are not a terror to doers of good, but to doers of evil. Would you not want to fear that Authority? Do good, and you will receive praise from Him: 4 For He is a Servant of God, for your good. But if you do evil, be afraid; for He does not bear the sword in vain; for He is a Servant of God, an Avenger, for wrath upon the evildoer.
In the Greek text of verse 4, the verb for “is” is in the singular third person form estin. So, that verse talks about a “he”, a singular servant of God. This obviously refers to Jesus. The avenging which that verse mentions, obviously refers to the same as Romans 12:19 – the Lord avenging the evils that are done to His people.
Romans 13:4 mentions even a sword. Consider this: In prophecies regarding the time when Jesus returns and destroys the rulers of this world, Jesus is sometimes pictured as carrying a sword. The Scriptures tell us that the rulers of this world will fight against Jesus, and that he will destroy them. It is obvious that Jesus is the in verse 4 mentioned Servant of God with a sword.
Now, we cannot be certain of what the apostle Paul exactly meant by every word, or what he actually had written (or whether he wrote that letter in Latin or Greek). But, it may be that after Romans 13:4, there ought to be a new paragraph, and that the words dio anankê hupotassesthai in the Greek text of verse 5 simply mean that the saints were forced to submit to the wicked Roman government, because of its violent force. First, here is an example of a “traditional” translation of that verse.
Romans 13:5 Wherefore be subject of necessity: not only for wrath, but also for conscience’ sake. (DR1899)
“Wherefore be subject of necessity” – now, what made it necessary for the saints to submit to the evil Roman government? The above-quoted translation has “for wrath” and “for conscience’ sake”. It is clear that it would not have been wise for the saints to draw the Roman government’s wrath upon themselves. So, they had to submit. But what about the latter part, “for conscience’ sake”; is that a fitting translation of the Greek text, in this case? That matter is discussed in a note a bit later; let us first consider something else in that verse.
Where the above-quoted DR1899 has “wherefore be subject of necessity”, the Greek text has dio anankê hupotassesthai. The word dio means “because of”, and hupotassesthai means “submit”. Regarding the noun anankê – it is found in several New Testament passages. For instance the NASB95 translates it in such ways as “inevitable”, “need”, “hardship”, “distress”, “constraint”, “compulsion”. Related words in old Greek: Anankaios, “with or by force”, anankasma, “compulsion”, anankazô, “to force”, “to compel”. In the Greek text of the Septuagint version, the LXX, the word anankê refers to such things as anguish, distress, trouble, terror.
So, it may be that the words dio anankê in the Greek text of verse 5 simply refer to the fact that the saints had to submit to the wicked Roman government, because of its violent force (anankê). Here is a different translation that verse.
Romans 13:5 Because of necessity, one must submit – not only because of wrath, [d] but also because you know these things. [e]
d “Because of wrath” – the Roman rulers and their officials and soldiers certainly showed wrath (aggression) towards the saints. So, they had to submit. They could not afford to make that wrath greater.
e “But also because you know these things” – translation details: The Greek text has suneidêsis which was used in different meanings, including “communication”, “information”, “knowledge”, “consciousness” and “awareness”, and also “complicity”, “guilt” and “crime”, and even “consciousness of right and wrong”. Which of those definitions would fit into the context of verse 5? Many translators have put into that verse the word “conscience”; that is probably copied from the Latin text of the Catholic Vulgate version which has in that verse the noun conscientiam which referred to such things as “consciousness”, “common knowledge”, “cognizance”, “awareness”, and even “sense of right” or “sense of guilt”. Here, the question is, which of the many different uses and meanings of the Greek noun suneidêsis would fit into the context of verse 5? Perhaps “knowledge”, and so, “but also because you know these things”. The saints knew that it was not wise for them to get into more trouble with the Roman rulers than what they already had.
It is clear that the saints were first and foremost to submit to God and his son Jesus. But, it is also clear that they were forced to “submit” to the Roman rulers, in regard to such things as paying taxes and so on. (However, other bible-passages show that the saints were to obey the worldly rulers and submit to them only within limits, only as far as that did not mean disobeying God. This could mean that they had to give their earthly lives.)
Romans 13:5 is followed by verse 6 where we find these words:
Romans 13:6 Why, this is really the reason you pay taxes […] (WEY)
“This is the reason” – what did the apostle refer to? Well, we can assume that those words refer to the violent force and power of the Roman government, the anankê of verse 5. Let us take a closer look at the last part of verse 6. First, here is how the Weymouth version translates the Greek text of that verse.
Romans 13:6 Why, this is really the reason you pay taxes; for tax-gatherers are ministers of God, devoting their energies to this very work. (WEY)
The above-quoted translation clarifies the meaning of that verse, by adding the word “tax-gatherers”. But, were the Roman tax collectors “ministers of God” (servants of God)? The wording in the Greek text is leitourgoi gar theou eisin. In old Greek, the noun leitourgos was often used of public servants, servants of the state. It could refer to for instance tax collectors – and, as you know, they certainly are “devoting their energies to this very work” (as the above-quoted Weymouth version has it), without ever giving up. If necessary, they use armed personnel as their help.
Then, regarding the word theou (theos) in the Greek text of that verse – who was the theos that those leitourgoi (tax collectors) served? In the Greek language, even the caesars (rulers) were called theoi. They were viewed as “gods”, and people were in fact demanded to worship them.
Again, we cannot be certain of what the apostle Paul exactly meant by every word. But, it appears that the word leitourgoi in the Greek text of Romans 13:6 indeed refers to tax collectors, just as the above-quoted Weymouth version has it. And, since it is unthinkable that Paul would have meant that the Roman tax collectors were servants of the true God who is in Heaven, we can assume that in the case of verse 6, the word theou refers to the caesar. The tax collectors were the caesar’s servants.
Then, we have verse 7.
Romans 13:7 Render to all what is due them: tax to whom tax is due; custom to whom custom; fear to whom fear; honor to whom honor. (NASB95)
Taxes (tribute) and custom fees (toll) were to be given to the caesar and his representatives. So much is clear. It is also clear that for the saints in Rome, this was unavoidable, inescapable.
So, taxes and custom fees were due to the caesar and his representatives. But what about the fear which Romans 13:7 mentions? What did Paul mean? Whom were the saints to fear? It is clear that they had all reason to be afraid of the Roman rulers and fear evil from them, but it is also clear that they were to fear God more than men.
Then, and this is still regarding Romans 13:7, there is also that part with the words “honour to whom honour [is due]”. In the Roman empire, people were expected to honour the caesar. Actually, he was viewed as a “god”, and people were to worship him. Should the saints have done that? No honour was due to the wicked, ruthless, ungodly Roman rulers. The honour and worship which the saints were to give, was due to the heavenly Rulers, God and his son Jesus. And yes, failure to worship the caesar could lead to that one was killed, but the saints were to put their trust in God.
What about Daniel 2:21, the words “he removes kings, and sets up kings”, and Daniel 4:17, “the most High rules in the kingdom of men, and gives it to whomsoever he will”? Do those passages mean that God has appointed the present-day rulers of this world, and is behind them? Let us consider this matter. We can begin in chapter 2 which mentions removing and setting up of kings.
Daniel 2: […] 20 Daniel answered and said, Blessed be the name of God for ever and ever: for wisdom and might are his: 21 And he changes the times and the seasons: he removes kings, and sets up kings: he gives wisdom to the wise, and knowledge to them that know understanding: 22 He reveals the deep and secret things: he knows what is in the darkness, and the light dwells with him. (AKJV)
This was when king Nebuchadnezzar had had a dream whose meaning the wise men of Babylon had not been able to explain. Actually, he had demanded that those “wise men” were to tell him what the dream had been, and after that give its interpretation (Daniel 2:5). They could not do that, and Nebuchadnezzar gave an order that they all were to be killed (verse 12). But, by God’s help, the prophet Daniel was able to tell the king both the dream as well as its interpretation. Through this, those people were spared.
But what about verse 21, the words “he removes kings, and sets up kings”? Does that mean that the true God who is in Heaven, has appointed this world’s rulers and is behind them? Obviously not, but it is of course clear that if and when God wants, He certainly can remove a ruler and replace him with someone else. In biblical times, God sometimes did that, but for the most part, he has kept his hands off from the matters of this world. As we all know, this world (planet) is in wicked hands. The present-day rulers of this world have not been appointed God, nor are they in his service. More: The Scriptures show that when Jesus returns, the rulers of this world will fight against him, and that he will defeat them.
Then we have Daniel 4:17. If you read that chapter from verse 1, you will notice that it was actually written by king Nebuchadnezzar. (That chapter quotes an Aramaic text which had been written or dictated by Nebuchadnezzar.)
Daniel 4:13 I saw in the visions of my head on my bed, and, behold, a watcher and an holy one came down from heaven; 14 He cried aloud, and said thus, Hew down the tree, and cut off his branches, shake off his leaves, and scatter his fruit: let the beasts get away from under it, and the fowls from his branches: 15 Nevertheless leave the stump of his roots in the earth, even with a band of iron and brass, in the tender grass of the field; and let it be wet with the dew of heaven, and let his portion be with the beasts in the grass of the earth: 16 Let his heart be changed from man’s, and let a beast’s heart be given to him; and let seven times pass over him. 17 This matter is by the decree of the watchers, and the demand by the word of the holy ones: to the intent that the living may know that the most High rules in the kingdom of men, and gives it to whomsoever he will, and sets up over it the basest of men. (AKJV)
So, what about verse 17, the words “the most High rules in the kingdom of men, and gives it to whomsoever he will, and sets up over it the basest of men”? What did that mean, what was Nebuchadnezzar saying?
A note: One translation has, “he will give it to whom he will, and will raise up the humble man as its ruler”.
Reading all of the book of Daniel can give more background to this matter, but in short: King Nebuchadnezzar had been extremely proud and haughty. But, for a period of seven years he was forcibly humbled by God. After this, he acknowledged that he was only a man of flesh, and that a higher power existed in Heaven.
In short, regarding Daniel 2:21 and 4:17 – those passages do not mean that the present-day rulers here on Earth are appointed by God. He is not behind the warlords and tyrants and others who are quickly destroying this planet.
Anglo-Israelist writers have claimed that the “throne” (the kingly lineage) of king David of Israel still exists here on Earth today, with an active ruler on a throne. Someone might connect that with some dogma regarding “divine right of kings”. But, who really has “David’s throne”, today? The Bible provides the answer: Jesus does. But, he has not set up his government here on Earth yet; rebels are still in power here. The article rya102.htm has some notes on the “throne of David” matter.
See also the “recommended reading” section, below.
Please tell others about this site. Please also link to it. The address to the table of contents page is biblepages.net/contents.htm
An explanation of the short names for the bible-translations that are quoted or mentioned at this site. → rsa092.htm
What is the Kingdom of God? Where is it located? Does it exist already, or is it only going to be established in the future? Or, is it merely something “in the hearts of men”? → roa012.htm
On the King James version. The story behind king James’ bible, including the men who were involved in producing it. → rsa032.htm
Why does God allow evil, sickness, pain, war and suffering? → rwa011.htm
Easy keys to deeper understanding of the Scriptures. → rga022.htm
Is the line of David the king of Israel still ruling somewhere on Earth? → rya102.htm
Some notes on the ancient Greek word theos, including its eventual origin and meaning. → roa152.htm
The Babylon of the book of Revelation, what or where is it? → rwa032.htm
Table of contents – Key-word index – Search function – On the goal and purpose of this site
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